Practice the October 2026 Week Current Affairs Quiz. This quiz is designed to help you test your knowledge of the key events and news from the second week of October 2026.
The Current Affairs Quiz of 8 to 14 October features multiple-choice questions covering important topics from that week. Whether you’re preparing for exams or just want to stay informed, this quiz provides a quick and effective way to review the major happenings from the start of the month.
2nd Week of October 2026: Current Affairs Quiz
Q1. The Ramappa Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is located in which district of Telangana?
A. Warangal
B. Mulugu
C. Karimnagar
D. Khammam
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Mulugu
Q2. The Ramappa Temple was completed in 1213 CE during the reign of which Kakatiya ruler?
A. Prataparudra II
B. Rudrama Devi
C. Ganapati Deva
D. Kakati Rudra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Ganapati Deva
Q3. The Ramappa Temple is unusual because it is popularly named after:
A. Its presiding deity
B. Its royal patron
C. Its sculptor
D. Its location
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Its sculptor
Q4. Which material was used for the pillars of the Ramappa Temple?
A. Red sandstone
B. Granite
C. Basalt
D. Marble
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Basalt
Q5. The ‘Sandbox Technology’ used in the Ramappa Temple’s foundation is meant to:
A. Prevent water seepage
B. Withstand earthquake vibrations
C. Reduce termite damage
D. Support heavier superstructure
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Withstand earthquake vibrations
Q6. Ramappa Temple became India’s which World Heritage Site when inscribed by UNESCO in 2021?
A. 35th
B. 37th
C. 39th
D. 41st
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 39th
Q7. Kakatiya political dominance ended in 1323 CE when which commander captured Warangal?
A. Malik Kafur
B. Ulugh Khan
C. Khusrau Khan
D. Zafar Khan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Ulugh Khan
Q8. The capital of the Kakatiya dynasty, Orugallu, corresponds to present-day:
A. Hyderabad
B. Warangal
C. Nalgonda
D. Vijayawada
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Warangal
Q9. Article 105 of the Constitution deals with the powers, privileges and immunities of:
A. State Legislatures
B. Parliament and its members
C. The Supreme Court
D. The Election Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Parliament and its members
Q10. Which Article provides immunity from court proceedings for anything said or any vote given by a member in Parliament?
A. Article 105(1)
B. Article 105(2)
C. Article 194(1)
D. Article 19(1)(a)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Article 105(2)
Q11. In the ‘Searchlight Case’ (1959), the Supreme Court held that:
A. Article 19(1)(a) prevails over privileges
B. Legislative privilege prevailed over the general freedom of speech
C. Privileges are subject to judicial review in all cases
D. Press freedom is unrestricted
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Legislative privilege prevailed over the general freedom of speech
Q12. The Keshav Singh case (Special Reference No. 1 of 1964) is significant because it:
A. Codified all legislative privileges
B. Recognised that courts could examine legality of action under legislative privilege
C. Abolished parliamentary privileges
D. Held privileges are absolute
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Recognised that courts could examine legality of action under legislative privilege
Q13. Which 2007 judgment rejected the idea that parliamentary proceedings are wholly immune from judicial review?
A. Raja Ram Pal v. Speaker, Lok Sabha
B. Sita Soren v. Union of India
C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
D. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Raja Ram Pal v. Speaker, Lok SabhaA. Light-gated ion channels
Q14. Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (SLCPs) are also described as:
A. Super pollutants
B. Long-lived forcers
C. Ozone-depleting substances
D. Primary greenhouse gases only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Super pollutants
Q15. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant classified as an SLCP?
A. Black carbon
B. Methane
C. Tropospheric ozone
D. HFCs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Tropospheric ozone
Q16. Black carbon deposited on snow and ice accelerates melting primarily by:
A. Increasing temperature of air
B. Reducing surface reflectivity (albedo)
C. Chemically dissolving ice
D. Increasing rainfall
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Reducing surface reflectivity (albedo)
Q17. According to the Global Methane Status Report 2025, India accounts for around what share of global methane emissions?
A. 3%
B. 6%
C. 9%
D. 15%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 9%
Q18. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol aims to progressively reduce which substances?
A. CFCs
B. HFCs
C. Black carbon
D. Methane
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. HFCs
Q19. The Global Methane Pledge, launched at COP26, aims for at least what reduction in global methane emissions from 2020 levels by 2030?
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 30%
Q20. The US Executive Order 14434, signed alongside the Accord, is titled:
A. Inaugurating the Era of Super Intelligence
B. Securing America’s AI Future
C. Frontier AI Safety Mandate
D. National AI Strategy Order
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Inaugurating the Era of Super Intelligence
Q21. The IceCube Neutrino Observatory is located at:
A. North Pole, Arctic
B. South Pole, Antarctica
C. Mauna Kea, Hawaii
D. Gran Sasso, Italy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. South Pole, Antarctica
Q22. IceCube detects neutrinos by observing which faint blue glow?
A. Bremsstrahlung radiation
B. Cherenkov radiation
C. Synchrotron radiation
D. Hawking radiation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Cherenkov radiation
Q23. The phenomenon of neutrinos changing from one flavour to another is called:
A. Neutrino decay
B. Neutrino oscillation
C. Neutrino scattering
D. Neutrino capture
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Neutrino oscillation
Q24. The SME Growth Fund (SGF) approved by the Union Cabinet has a commitment of:
A. ₹5,000 crore
B. ₹10,000 crore
C. ₹25,000 crore
D. ₹50,000 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. ₹10,000 crore
Q25. The SME Growth Fund will function as which type of entity registered with SEBI?
A. Mutual Fund
B. Alternative Investment Fund (AIF)
C. Real Estate Investment Trust
D. Exchange Traded Fund
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Alternative Investment Fund (AIF)
Q26. How does the SME Growth Fund differ from the SRI Fund?
A. SGF is a fund of funds; SRI invests directly
B. SGF invests directly in SMEs; SRI is a fund of funds investing via daughter funds
C. Both are fund of funds
D. Both are debt funds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. SGF invests directly in SMEs; SRI is a fund of funds investing via daughter funds
Q27. Mt Kamet, climbed by an Indo-Argentine army expedition, is India’s third-highest mountain after Kanchenjunga and:
A. K2
B. Nanda Devi
C. Nanda Kot
D. Trisul
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Nanda Devi
Q28. Rani Durgavati, whose birth anniversary falls on 5 October, ruled which kingdom?
A. Garha-Katanga
B. Ahom
C. Mewar
D. Malwa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Garha-Katanga
Q29. Pneumonic plague is caused by which bacterium?
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Bacillus anthracis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Yersinia pestis
Q30. The 19th International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA) 2026, where India won four gold medals, was held in:
A. Chiang Mai, Thailand
B. Hanoi, Vietnam
C. Tehran, Iran
D. Seoul, South Korea
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Hanoi, Vietnam
Q31. The medieval trading settlement associated with the Silk Road was recently discovered at the submerged Toru-Aygyr complex in which lake?
A. Lake Balkhash
B. Lake Issyk-Kul
C. Aral Sea
D. Lake Baikal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Lake Issyk-Kul
Q32. The overland Silk Road routes connected Central Asia with which Chinese city?
A. Beijing
B. Chang’an (Xi’an)
C. Shanghai
D. Nanjing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Chang’an (Xi’an)
Q33. Which of the following was a major commodity exported from India along the Silk Road?
A. Porcelain
B. Spices, especially pepper
C. Lacquerware
D. Glassware
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Spices, especially pepper
Q34. The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) was announced by China in which year?
A. 2008
B. 2010
C. 2013
D. 2015
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 2013
Q35. The Kushana empire, which facilitated Silk Road trade, had an important political and cultural centre at Purushapura, which is modern:
A. Taxila
B. Peshawar
C. Mathura
D. Kabul
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Peshawar
Q36. Under the BNSS, 2023, which section regulates when police may arrest a person without a warrant?
A. Section 35
B. Section 47
C. Section 163
D. Section 172
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Section 35
Q37. Under Section 172(2) of the BNSS, a person detained for disregarding a lawful police direction must, in petty cases, be released within:
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 24 hours
Q38. Preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs or the security of India falls under which entry of the Seventh Schedule?
A. Union List, Entry 9
B. Concurrent List, Entry 3
C. State List, Entry 1
D. Union List, Entry 22
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Union List, Entry 9
Q39. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the procedure affecting personal liberty under Article 21 must be fair, just and reasonable?
A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
C. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
D. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Q40. Under Article 22(2), an arrested person must ordinarily be produced before the nearest magistrate within:
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 24 hours
Q41. Under Article 22(4), preventive detention beyond what period ordinarily requires the Advisory Board process?
A. One month
B. Two months
C. Three months
D. Six months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Three months
Q42. Which BNSS section requires police to inform a nominated relative, friend or other person about the arrest and place of custody?
A. Section 38
B. Section 47
C. Section 48
D. Section 53
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Section 48
Q43. What is the maximum period of detention under the National Security Act (NSA), 1980?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 12 months
Q44. Which Supreme Court judgment prescribed safeguards governing arrest and detention to reduce custodial abuse?
A. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997)
B. Pankaj Bansal v. Union of India (2023)
C. Banka Sneha Sheela v. State of Telangana (2021)
D. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997)
Q45. In Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar (2014), the Supreme Court cautioned against automatic arrests for offences punishable with imprisonment of up to:
A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 7 years
Q46. In Pankaj Bansal v. Union of India (2023), the Supreme Court held that the Enforcement Directorate must:
A. Obtain prior court permission before arrest
B. Furnish the grounds of arrest in writing
C. Arrest only during daytime
D. Provide compensation for every arrest
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Furnish the grounds of arrest in writing
Q47. Section 163 of the BNSS empowers which authority to issue urgent orders in cases of nuisance or apprehended danger?
A. Station House Officer
B. Executive Magistrate
C. High Court Judge
D. District Collector only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Executive Magistrate
Q48. The 2026 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to Henri B. Kagan and Kensō Soai for their work on:
A. Click chemistry
B. Non-linear effects and autocatalysis in asymmetric organic synthesis
C. Lithium-ion batteries
D. Metal-organic frameworks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Non-linear effects and autocatalysis in asymmetric organic synthesis
Q49. A 1:1 mixture of two enantiomers is called:
A. A racemic mixture
B. An isomeric blend
C. A chiral catalyst
D. An autocatalyst
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. A racemic mixture
Q50. Which of the following predominates in the proteins of living organisms, an example of biological homochirality?
A. D-amino acids
B. L-amino acids
C. L-sugars
D. Racemic amino acids
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. L-amino acids
Q51. CBDR-RC was formally articulated in which principle of the 1992 Rio Declaration?
A. Principle 1
B. Principle 7
C. Principle 15
D. Principle 21
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Principle 7
Q52. COP31, for which India stressed the importance of CBDR-RC, is scheduled to be held in:
A. Belém, Brazil
B. Antalya, Türkiye
C. Baku, Azerbaijan
D. Dubai, UAE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Antalya, Türkiye
Q53. Under the Kyoto Protocol, which group of countries had legally binding emission reduction commitments?
A. Non-Annex I countries
B. Annex I countries (developed and economies in transition)
C. All UN members
D. Only G20 countries
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Annex I countries (developed and economies in transition)
Q54. Under the Paris Agreement, all parties are required to prepare and communicate successive:
A. Annex Commitments
B. Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)
C. Carbon Credits
D. Adaptation Funds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)
Q55. The Press Council of India (PCI) operates under which Act?
A. Press Council Act, 1965
B. Press Council Act, 1978
C. Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867
D. Cable Television Networks Act, 1995
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Press Council Act, 1978
Q56. In which year was the Press Council abolished, before being revived in 1979?
A. 1965
B. 1975
C. 1977
D. 1984
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 1975
Q57. Besides the Chairman, how many members does the Press Council of India have under Section 5 of the Act?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 28
D. 30
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 28
Q58. Which of the following is a river draining into the Black Sea?
A. Danube
B. Volga
C. Tigris
D. Ob
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Danube
Q59. The 94th Indian Air Force Day was celebrated on 8 October 2026 commemorating the IAF’s establishment in which year?
A. 1930
B. 1932
C. 1947
D. 1950
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 1932
Q60. Which Indian site, an important ancient trading settlement, is near Puducherry and is on India’s UNESCO Tentative List?
A. Arikamedu
B. Harwan
C. Vikramshila
D. Taxila
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Arikamedu
Q61. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President of India to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, remissions or commutations?
A. Article 61
B. Article 72
C. Article 161
D. Article 124
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Article 72
Q62. Which form of clemency substitutes a harsher punishment with a lighter form of punishment?
A. Remission
B. Respite
C. Commutation
D. Reprieve
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Commutation
Q63. A temporary postponement of the execution of a sentence, particularly a death sentence, is called:
A. Pardon
B. Reprieve
C. Remission
D. Respite
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Reprieve
Q64. Which statement about the Governor’s clemency power under Article 161 is correct?
A. The Governor can pardon a death sentence
B. The Governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence but cannot pardon it
C. The Governor has no power over death sentences
D. The Governor can grant clemency for court-martial punishments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. The Governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence but cannot pardon it
Q65. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that inordinate delay in deciding a mercy petition can violate Article 21 and be grounds for commuting a death sentence?
A. Maru Ram v. Union of India
B. Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh
C. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India
D. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India
Q66. Maru Ram v. Union of India (1980) held that the constitutional clemency power is exercised:
A. At the President’s personal discretion
B. On the aid and advice of the appropriate Council of Ministers
C. By the Supreme Court
D. By the Chief Justice of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. On the aid and advice of the appropriate Council of Ministers
Q67. Which section of the BNSS, 2023 provides a statutory procedure for mercy petitions in death-sentence cases?
A. Section 35
B. Section 163
C. Section 472
D. Section 530
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Section 472
Q68. Balwant Singh Rajoana, whose mercy petition has been pending since 2012, was convicted in the assassination of:
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Rajiv Gandhi
C. Beant Singh
D. Gen. A.S. Vaidya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Beant Singh
Q69. According to the study, unauthorised GM cotton hybrids may occupy over what share of India’s cotton-growing area?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 25%
Q70. The cp4-epsps gene confers tolerance to which herbicide?
A. Atrazine
B. Glyphosate
C. 2,4-D
D. Paraquat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Glyphosate
Q71. The Vip3A gene is derived from which organism?
A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
B. Bacillus thuringiensis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Rhizobium
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Bacillus thuringiensis
Q72. In which year was Bt cotton approved for commercial cultivation in India?
A. 1996
B. 2002
C. 2006
D. 2010
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 2002
Q73. Which body under MoEFCC appraises proposals for environmental release and commercial use of genetically engineered organisms?
A. RCGM
B. IBSC
C. GEAC
D. ICMR
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. GEAC
Q74. The Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM) functions under which Department?
A. Department of Biotechnology
B. Department of Science and Technology
C. Department of Agriculture
D. Department of Atomic Energy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Department of Biotechnology
Q75. World Hydrogen and Fuel Cell Day is observed on 8 October because the date refers to:
A. Hydrogen’s discovery date
B. Hydrogen’s atomic weight of approximately 1.008
C. Hydrogen’s boiling point
D. Founding of MNRE
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Hydrogen’s atomic weight of approximately 1.008
Q76. When hydrogen is produced by electrolysis of water using renewable electricity, it is classified as:
A. Grey hydrogen
B. Brown hydrogen
C. Green hydrogen
D. Blue hydrogen
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Green hydrogen
Q77. In a hydrogen fuel cell, the principal reaction product is:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water along with heat
C. Methane
D. Nitrogen oxides
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Water along with heat
Q78. India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission targets at least how much green hydrogen production annually by 2030?
A. 1 MMT
B. 3 MMT
C. 5 MMT
D. 10 MMT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 5 MMT
Q79. The RBI’s MPC reportedly raised the repo rate by 25 basis points to what level?
A. 5.0%
B. 5.25%
C. 5.5%
D. 6.0%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 5.5%
Q80. Under a ‘calibrated tightening’ stance, the central bank:
A. Plans to cut rates soon
B. Signals it is not inclined to reduce policy rates near-term
C. Keeps rates fixed permanently
D. Reduces CRR only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Signals it is not inclined to reduce policy rates near-term
Q81. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was established under which section of the RBI Act, 1934?
A. Section 17
B. Section 45ZB
C. Section 7
D. Section 42
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Section 45ZB
Q82. What is the quorum of the MPC?
A. Three members
B. Four members
C. Five members
D. Six members
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Four members
Q83. India’s inflation-targeting framework sets the CPI target at 4% with a tolerance band of:
A. 1% to 5%
B. 2% to 6%
C. 3% to 7%
D. 4% to 8%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 2% to 6%
Q84. The GST Council is established under which Article of the Constitution?
A. Article 246A
B. Article 268
C. Article 279A
D. Article 280
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Article 279A
Q85. At its 57th meeting, the GST Council proposed raising the monetary threshold for launching prosecution from ₹1 crore to:
A. ₹2 crore
B. ₹3 crore
C. ₹5 crore
D. ₹10 crore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. ₹5 crore
Q86. The GST Council recommended omitting which section of the CGST Act, 2017, dealing with the power of arrest?
A. Section 16
B. Section 69
C. Section 125
D. Section 132
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Section 69
Q87. The Council proposed provisional sanction of what percentage of eligible refund claims for zero-rated supplies and inverted duty structure cases?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 90%
Q88. The Universal Postal Union (UPU), commemorated on World Post Day (9 October), was established in which year?
A. 1865
B. 1874
C. 1900
D. 1948
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 1874
Q89. The 10th India Mobile Congress (IMC) is jointly organised by DoT and which organisation?
A. TRAI
B. Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI)
C. NASSCOM
D. BSNL
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI)
Q90. The Shakti helicopter engine, for which HAL plans a second production line, was developed in collaboration with which French company?
A. Dassault
B. Safran
C. Thales
D. Airbus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Safran
Q91. The National SC-ST Hub (NSSH) scheme was launched on 18 October of which year?
A. 2014
B. 2016
C. 2018
D. 2020
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 2016
Q92. Under the Public Procurement Policy for MSEs, what share of total annual procurement is earmarked for SC/ST-owned MSEs within the 25% MSE target?
A. 2%
B. 4%
C. 6%
D. 10%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 4%
Q93. The Special Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (SCLCSS) provides a capital subsidy of:
A. 15% up to ₹15 lakh
B. 20% up to ₹20 lakh
C. 25% up to ₹25 lakh
D. 30% up to ₹30 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 25% up to ₹25 lakh
Q94. Under the NSSH Bank Loan Processing Reimbursement Scheme, how much of the eligible loan processing fee is reimbursed (or ₹1 lakh, whichever is lower)?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 90%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 80%
Q95. Which of the following is NOT listed as an eligible government-promoted e-commerce platform under the NSSH membership fee support?
A. Government e-Marketplace
B. TRIFED / Tribes India
C. MSME Mart
D. Amazon Business
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. Amazon Business
Q96. The 2017 amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927 removed which item from the definition of ‘tree’ when grown in non-forest areas?
A. Teak
B. Bamboo
C. Sandalwood
D. Rubber
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Bamboo
Q97. According to ISFR 2023, India’s bamboo-bearing area is approximately:
A. 0.55 lakh sq. km
B. 1.55 lakh sq. km
C. 3.55 lakh sq. km
D. 5.55 lakh sq. km
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 1.55 lakh sq. km
Q98. The National Bamboo Mission (NBM) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under which Ministry?
A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
B. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
C. Ministry of Rural Development
D. Ministry of MSME
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Q99. Project BOLD (Bamboo Oasis on Lands in Drought) is implemented through which organisation?
A. NABARD
B. Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
C. NECTAR
D. TRIFED
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
Q100. The National Transit Pass System (NTPS) operates under which framework?
A. One Nation, One Ration
B. One Nation, One Pass
C. One District, One Product
D. One Nation, One Market
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. One Nation, One Pass
Q101. UNCTAD’s Trade and Development Report 2026 is titled:
A. The Geoeconomics of Development
B. Trade in a Fragmented World
C. Debt and Development
D. Aid and Inequality
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. The Geoeconomics of Development
Q102. According to the UNCTAD report, ODA from major donors is projected to fall by what percentage in 2026?
A. 2.9%
B. 4.9%
C. 6.9%
D. 9.9%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 6.9%
Q103. The internationally agreed ODA target is what share of donor countries’ GNI?
A. 0.23%
B. 0.5%
C. 0.7%
D. 1.0%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 0.7%
Q104. The Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Act, 2026 provides that what share of Director General (DG) posts go to IPS officers on deputation?
A. 50%
B. 67%
C. 90%
D. 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 100%
Q105. Which of the following is NOT covered under the CAPF (General Administration) Act, 2026 as listed in the material?
A. CRPF
B. BSF
C. Assam Rifles
D. SSB
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Assam Rifles
Q106. In May 2025, the Supreme Court directed that IPS deputation to senior CAPF positions should be:
A. Increased
B. Progressively reduced, with a cadre review
C. Abolished immediately
D. Left to the States
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Progressively reduced, with a cadre review
Q107. Anne Carson, awarded the 2026 Nobel Prize in Literature, is from which country?
A. United Kingdom
B. United States
C. Canada
D. Australia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Canada
Q108. Which work by Anne Carson is described as a novel in verse inspired by Greek mythology?
A. Eros the Bittersweet
B. Autobiography of Red
C. Nox
D. Glass, Irony and God
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Autobiography of Red
Q109. Who was the first Asian woman to win the Nobel Prize in Literature?
A. Selma Lagerlöf
B. Han Kang
C. Anne Carson
D. Alice Munro
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Han Kang
Q110. Who was the first non-European Nobel laureate in Literature (1913)?
A. Pablo Neruda
B. Rabindranath Tagore
C. Kenzaburo Oe
D. Naguib Mahfouz
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Rabindranath Tagore
Q111. The 2026 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Navanethem ‘Navi’ Pillay, who is from:
A. India
B. South Africa
C. Sri Lanka
D. Kenya
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. South Africa
Q112. Navi Pillay was President of which tribunal from 1999 to 2003, and played a role in the Akayesu case?
A. ICTY
B. ICTR
C. Special Court for Sierra Leone
D. ICC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. ICTR
Q113. Navi Pillay served as the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights during:
A. 2003–2008
B. 2008–2014
C. 2014–2018
D. 2018–2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 2008–2014
Q114. The Living Planet Index (LPI) is produced by which organisation in collaboration with WWF?
A. IUCN
B. Zoological Society of London (ZSL)
C. UNEP
D. Wildlife Institute of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Zoological Society of London (ZSL)
Q115. Per the Living Planet Report 2026, which ecosystem showed the largest reported decline?
A. Marine (59%)
B. Terrestrial (69%)
C. Freshwater (85%)
D. Coastal (95%)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Freshwater (85%)
Q116. According to the survey under Project Dolphin (2021–2023), what is the estimated number of Ganges river dolphins?
A. 2,324
B. 4,324
C. 6,324
D. 8,324
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 6,324
Q117. Nameri Tiger Reserve received which status under Conservation Assured | Tiger Standards (CA|TS)?
A. Approved
B. Provisional
C. Gold
D. Registered only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Approved
Q118. The CA|TS framework contains how many elements organised under how many pillars?
A. 12 elements, 5 pillars
B. 17 elements, 7 pillars
C. 20 elements, 8 pillars
D. 25 elements, 10 pillars
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 17 elements, 7 pillars
Q119. Each JOSH (Joint Squad for Health) team consists of five MY Bharat Volunteers and:
A. Five NCC cadets
B. Five ASHA workers
C. Five NSS volunteers
D. Five Anganwadi workers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Five NCC cadets
Q120. World Cotton Day, observed on 7 October, was first celebrated in Geneva in 2019 at the initiative of the Cotton-4 countries. Which of these is NOT a Cotton-4 country?
A. Benin
B. Burkina Faso
C. Chad
D. Côte d’Ivoire
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. Côte d’Ivoire
Q121. The India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) was announced at which event?
A. BRICS Summit, Johannesburg, 2023
B. G20 Leaders’ Summit, New Delhi, September 2023
C. COP28, Dubai, 2023
D. Quad Summit, Tokyo, 2022
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. G20 Leaders’ Summit, New Delhi, September 2023
Q122. The Northern Corridor of IMEC proposes a rail route through Saudi Arabia and Jordan to which port?
A. Port Said
B. Haifa
C. Piraeus
D. Jebel Ali
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Haifa
Q123. Which of the following is NOT a signatory to the original IMEC MoU?
A. Saudi Arabia
B. Italy
C. Jordan
D. United Arab Emirates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Jordan
Q124. Adani Ports and SEZ acquired what percentage stake in the Haifa Port Company in 2023?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 100%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 70%
Q125. The Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII), cited as IMEC’s financing context, was launched in 2022 by which group?
A. BRICS
B. G7
C. ASEAN
D. SCO
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. G7
Q126. The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) covers how many Aspirational Agricultural Districts?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 112
D. 150
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 100
Q127. The PMDDKY draws policy inspiration from which programme of NITI Aayog?
A. Aspirational Districts Programme
B. Atal Innovation Mission
C. Poshan Abhiyaan
D. Jal Jeevan Mission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Aspirational Districts Programme
Q128. Which of the following is NOT one of the three indicators used to identify PMDDKY districts?
A. Low agricultural productivity
B. Low cropping intensity
C. Low agricultural credit disbursement
D. Low rainfall
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. Low rainfall
Q129. The PM-DDKY dashboard tracks performance across how many indicators?
A. 74
B. 47
C. 100
D. 121
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 121
Q130. District Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana Samitis, which prepare District Action Plans, are chaired by:
A. District Collectors
B. State Chief Secretaries
C. Union Agriculture Minister
D. Secretary, Agriculture Department
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. District Collectors
Q131. The Telecommunications (Temporary Suspension of Services) Rules, 2024 are framed under which Act?
A. Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
B. Information Technology Act, 2000
C. Telecommunications Act, 2023
D. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Telecommunications Act, 2023
Q132. What is the maximum duration for which a suspension order can remain in force under the 2024 Rules?
A. 24 hours
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 15 days
Q133. Suspension orders must be submitted to the Review Committee by the next working day, and the committee must meet within:
A. 24 hours
B. Three days
C. Five days
D. Seven days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Five days
Q134. Which Supreme Court judgment (2020) held that indefinite suspension of internet services is impermissible and orders must be published?
A. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
B. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India
C. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
D. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 100%
Q135. The 2004 amendment to the UAPA brought terrorism-related offences into the Act following the repeal of which law?
A. TADA
B. POTA, 2002
C. NSA, 1980
D. AFSPA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. POTA, 2002
Q136. The 2019 amendment to the UAPA empowered the Central Government to:
A. Designate an individual as a terrorist
B. Ban all political parties
C. Grant bail directly
D. Set up special High Courts
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Designate an individual as a terrorist
Q137. Which UAPA section places significant restrictions on grant of bail?
A. Section 15
B. Section 43D(5)
C. Section 18
D. Section 35
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Section 43D(5)
Q138. In Union of India v. K.A. Najeeb (2021), the Supreme Court held that:
A. UAPA bail restrictions are absolute
B. Constitutional courts can grant bail despite statutory restrictions when prolonged incarceration violates fundamental rights
C. UAPA is unconstitutional
D. Bail is a matter solely for the NIA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Constitutional courts can grant bail despite statutory restrictions when prolonged incarceration violates fundamental rights
Q139. The Article 6.4 mechanism of the Paris Agreement is officially called:
A. Clean Development Mechanism
B. Paris Agreement Crediting Mechanism (PACM)
C. Joint Implementation
D. Green Climate Mechanism
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Paris Agreement Crediting Mechanism (PACM)
Q140. The first project to receive credits under the Article 6.4 mechanism (February 2026) was a cookstove project in which country?
A. India
B. Myanmar
C. Kenya
D. Bangladesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Myanmar
Q141. Which provision of Article 6 of the Paris Agreement covers non-market approaches to international climate cooperation?
A. Article 6.2
B. Article 6.4
C. Article 6.8
D. Article 6.1
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Article 6.8
Q142. The Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR) was established in 1993 following which conference?
A. Stockholm Conference
B. Rio Earth Summit
C. World Conference on Human Rights, Vienna
D. Beijing Conference on Women
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. World Conference on Human Rights, Vienna
Q143. The UN Human Rights Committee, as distinct from OHCHR and UNHRC, monitors implementation of which treaty?
A. CEDAW
B. ICCPR
C. CRC
D. ICESCR
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. ICCPR
Q144. Which isotope is the basis of the world’s first working nuclear clocks?
A. Caesium-133
B. Strontium-87
C. Thorium-229
D. Uranium-235
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Thorium-229
Q145. Thorium-229 nuclear clocks use a vacuum-ultraviolet laser of approximately what wavelength?
A. 48 nm
B. 148 nm
C. 548 nm
D. 1,148 nm
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 148 nm
Q146. In the research described, thorium-229 nuclei are embedded in crystals of:
A. Silicon carbide
B. Calcium fluoride
C. Quartz
D. Diamond
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Calcium fluoride
Q147. The Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) is also known as:
A. Human Herpesvirus 4 (HHV-4)
B. Human Papillomavirus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Human Herpesvirus 1
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Human Herpesvirus 4 (HHV-4)
Q148. EBV was identified in 1964 in cells from which cancer, making it the first virus linked to cancer?
A. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Burkitt lymphoma
C. Cervical cancer
D. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Burkitt lymphoma
Q149. INS Shreyas, launched in Kolkata, is which of the four Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels (NGOPVs) being built by GRSE?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Third
Q150. World Mental Health Day, observed on 10 October, was established in 1992 by which organisation?
A. World Health Organization
B. World Federation for Mental Health (WFMH)
C. UNICEF
D. International Labour Organization
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. World Federation for Mental Health (WFMH)
Q151. Under the RTI Act, 2005, information concerning the life or liberty of a person must ordinarily be provided within:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 7 days
D. 15 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 48 hours
Q152. Which section of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with proactive (suo motu) disclosure by public authorities?
A. Section 4
B. Section 8
C. Section 19
D. Section 24
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Section 4
Q153. The penalty an Information Commission may impose on a PIO under Section 20 of the RTI Act is:
A. ₹100 per day, maximum ₹10,000
B. ₹250 per day, maximum ₹25,000
C. ₹500 per day, maximum ₹50,000
D. ₹1,000 per day, maximum ₹1 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. ₹250 per day, maximum ₹25,000
Q154. Which amendment empowered the Central Government to prescribe the tenure and service conditions of Information Commissioners, raising concerns about autonomy?
A. RTI (Amendment) Act, 2005
B. RTI (Amendment) Act, 2013
C. RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019
D. DPDP Act, 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019
Q155. Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act, 2023 amended which provision of the RTI Act relating to personal information?
A. Section 4(1)(b)
B. Section 8(1)(j)
C. Section 19
D. Section 24
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Section 8(1)(j)
Q156. Which international body coordinates the UN Global Initiative on AI for Agri-Food Systems (GI-AI4FS)?
A. World Bank
B. International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
C. WTO
D. UNDP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
Q157. India’s National Pest Surveillance System (NPSS) uses which technologies to identify pests and advise farmers?
A. Blockchain and IoT
B. AI and machine learning
C. Quantum computing
D. Nanotechnology
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. AI and machine learning
Q158. The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under an Act of which year?
A. 2016
B. 2019
C. 2021
D. 2023
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 2021
Q159. Appeals against CAQM orders lie before which body?
A. High Court of Delhi
B. Supreme Court directly
C. National Green Tribunal (NGT)
D. Central Pollution Control Board
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. National Green Tribunal (NGT)
Q160. Which Bharat Stage standard was skipped in India during the transition to BS-VI?
A. BS-III
B. BS-IV
C. BS-V
D. BS-II
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. BS-V
Q161. The Central Asian Flyway Digital Hub was launched by which organisation?
A. IUCN
B. Central Asian Conservation Network (CACN)
C. WWF India
D. Wildlife Institute of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Central Asian Conservation Network (CACN)
Q162. The Central Asian Flyway covers how many range states?
A. 12
B. 22
C. 30
D. 45
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 30
Q163. The CMS COP14 in 2024, which advanced the India-led Central Asian Flyway Initiative, was held in:
A. Samarkand
B. Bonn
C. Nairobi
D. Baku
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A. Samarkand
Q164. The Global Innovation Index (GII) is published by which organisation?
A. World Bank
B. World Economic Forum
C. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
D. UNCTAD
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 100%
Q165. What was India’s rank in the Global Innovation Index 2026 among 139 economies?
A. 28th
B. 38th
C. 48th
D. 58th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 38th
Q166. Which country retained the top position in GII 2026 for the 16th consecutive year?
A. Sweden
B. United States
C. Switzerland
D. Singapore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. Switzerland
Q167. The National Household Travel Survey (NHTS) was released by the National Statistics Office under which Ministry?
A. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
C. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
D. NITI Aayog
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Q168. According to NHTS, which mode accounts for the largest share of workers’ commutes?
A. Buses
B. Two-wheelers
C. Cars
D. Metro
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Two-wheelers
Q169. As per NHTS, what share of male workers participate in daily work trips compared with female workers?
A. 71.9% vs 51.9%
B. 61.9% vs 41.9%
C. 51.9% vs 31.9%
D. 81.9% vs 61.9%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 61.9% vs 41.9%
Q170. Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan was born on 11 October 1902 in:
A. Patna
B. Sitabdiara
C. Gaya
D. Ballia city
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Sitabdiara
Q171. JP helped establish which party within the Indian National Congress in 1934?
A. Swaraj Party
B. Congress Socialist Party
C. Forward Bloc
D. Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Congress Socialist Party
Q172. Which book (1959) by Jayaprakash Narayan outlined ideas for reorganising India’s political system?
A. Why Socialism?
B. A Plea for the Reconstruction of Indian Polity
C. Prison Diary
D. Towards Total Revolution
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. A Plea for the Reconstruction of Indian Polity
Q173. JP received the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Public Service in which year?
A. 1955
B. 1965
C. 1975
D. 1985
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. 1965
Q174. Nanaji Deshmukh was a prominent leader of which party?
A. Swatantra Party
B. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
C. Praja Socialist Party
D. Communist Party of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
Q175. Nanaji Deshmukh was conferred the Bharat Ratna posthumously in which year?
A. 1999
B. 2010
C. 2015
D. 2019
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D. 2019
Q176. CERVAVAC, which received WHO prequalification in September 2026, was developed by:
A. Bharat Biotech
B. Serum Institute of India
C. Biological E
D. Zydus Lifesciences
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Serum Institute of India
Q177. Which vaccine does India’s National HPV Vaccination Programme (launched 28 February 2026) use?
A. CERVAVAC
B. Gardasil-4
C. Cervarix
D. Gardasil-9
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Gardasil-4
Q178. Under WHO’s 90–70–90 targets for cervical cancer elimination by 2030, the vaccination target is that 90% of girls are fully vaccinated by age:
A. 9
B. 12
C. 15
D. 18
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C. 15
Q179. INS Mangrol, commissioned at Naval Dockyard Mumbai, belongs to which class of vessel?
A. Arnala-class
B. Mahe-class ASW-SWC
C. Kolkata-class destroyer
D. Shivalik-class frigate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. Mahe-class ASW-SWC
Q180. Garba of Gujarat was inscribed on UNESCO’s Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in which month and year?
A. November 2021
B. December 2023
C. March 2024
D. December 2025
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B. December 2023
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